Past papers exam questions and answers
Hardcopy Booklet Covering Year 2018 to April 2025 Past Exams Questions and Answers Topically arranged
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Information Communication Technology(ICT) Revision Kit – Past exam questions and answers for kasneb CPA and CS courses
CONTENT
Questions
Topic 1: Introduction to information communication technology (ICT) …………..…11
Topic 2: Overview of operating systems………………………………………………15
Topic 3: An overview of application packages…………………………………..……18
Topic 4: Computer networks…………………………………………………….…….26
Topic 5: The Internet ……………………………………………………………….…33
Topic 6: Data security……………………………………………………………….…36
Topic 7: Information systems in an enterprise …………………………………..…….42
Topic 8: E-Commerce ………………………………………………………..…..……51
Topic 9: Mobile devices and applications ……………………………………….…..…55
Topic 10: Systems analysis and design ………………………………………….….…57
Topic 11: Legal, ethical and social issues in information systems ……………………65
Suggested answers and solutions:
Topic 1: Introduction to information communication technology (ICT) ………………70
Topic 2: Overview of operating systems…………………………………………..……87
Topic 3: An overview of application packages…………………………………….….102
Topic 4: Computer networks……………………………………………..……………134
Topic 5: The Internet ………………………………………………………….……….170
Topic 6: Data security…………………………………………………………….……179
Topic 7: Information systems in an enterprise …………………………………………206
Topic 8: E-Commerce …………………………………………………………………248
Topic 9: Mobile devices and applications ………………………………………………269
Topic 10: Systems analysis and design ………………………………………..…….…278
Topic 11: Legal, ethical and social issues in information systems ……………………317
UNIT DESCRIPTION
This paper is intended to equip the candidate with knowledge, skills and attitudes that will enable him/her to apply information communication technology effectively in solving business problems, decision making and in adapting to new working environments.
LEARNING OUTCOMES
A candidate who passes this paper should be able to:
• Demonstrate proficiency in decision making using contemporary information communication technology tools
• Use various application packages to solve business issues
• Use data communication networks, the Internet and e-commerce in optimising business opportunities
• Apply data security measures and procedures
• Implement information systems legal, ethical and social issues.
Note to trainers: Trainers are advised to use a practical approach in offering tuition for this unit through infusing practical demonstrations in a computerized environment.
CONTENT
1. Introduction to information communication technology (ICT)
1.1 Introduction to information communication technology
1.2 Computer hardware
1.3 Computer software
1.4 Programming languages and tools
1.5 Information systems personnel and hierarchy
1.6 Role of ICT in business environments
1.7 Information centres
1.8 Impact of ICT in business
2. Overview of operating systems
2.1 Overview of an operating system
2.2 Functions of an operating system
2.3 Types of operating systems
2.4 Computer booting
2.5 Selection and acquisition of operating systems
3. An overview of application packages
3.1 Word processing
2.5.1 Features of a word processor
2.5.2 Formatting and editing text
2.5.3 Creating and formatting tables
3.2 Spreadsheets
2.6.1 Features of a spreadsheet program
2.6.2 Formatting and editing spreadsheet
2.6.3 Formulas
2.6.4 Functions; sum, average, min, max, IPMT, NPV, PMT, PV, VLOOKUP, HLOOKUP, COUNT, IF, sumif
2.6.5 Charts and graphs
2.6.6 Working with pivot tables
2.6.7 Linking formulas in different worksheets
2.6.8 What if analysis; Goal seek and solver
3.3 Presentation software
2.7.1 Features of a presentation program
2.7.2 Typing and formatting text in slide
2.7.3 Slide show
2.8 Computerised accounting software
2.8.1 Capturing data
2.8.2 Features of accounting software
4. Computer networks
4.1 Computer networks concepts
4.2 Computer network hardware and software
4.3 Data transmission media
4.4 Types of computer networks
4.5 Advantages and limitations of networking
4.6 Cloud computing concepts, features and models
4.7 Internet of things (IoT)
5. The Internet
5.1 Introduction to the Internet
5.2 Applications of Internet
5.2.1 Using search engines
5.2.2 E-mails
5.2.3 Electronic communication
5.3 Internet services – e-mails, www, instant messaging
5.4 Internet service providers (ISPs)
5.5 Applications of internet
5.6 Online collaborative tools; cloud sheets and cloud documents
5.7 Impact of internet on society
6. Data security
6.1 Overview of data security
6.2 Threats and controls
6.3 Data backup and restoration procedures
7. Information systems in an enterprise
7.1 Overview of information systems
7.2 Components of an information system
7.3 Types and characteristics of information systems
7.4 Systems in a functional perspective
7.5 Enterprise applications and the business process integration
8. e-Commerce
8.1 e-commerce concepts and features
8.2 Models of e-commerce
8.3 Impact of the internet on business
8.4 E-commerce enabling software
8.5 Business opportunities in e-commerce
8.6 E-commerce infrastructure and platforms
8.7 E-commerce payments methods
8.8 Challenges of e-commerce
8.9 Securing e-commerce transactions
8.10 M-commerce and applications
8.11 Digital marketing methods
9. Mobile devices and applications
9.1 Overview of mobile computing
9.2 Types of mobile devices
9.3 Uses of mobile devices
9.4 Overview of mobile applications
9.5 Mobile browsers
10. Systems analysis and design
10.1 Elements of information systems
10.2 Systems theory
10.3 Types of information systems
10.4 Personnel involved in systems analysis and design
10.5 Systems analysis and design concepts
10.6 Systems development life cycle (SDLC)
10.6.1 Definition of systems development life cycle
10.6.2 Phases of SDLC
10.6.3 Advantages and disadvantages of SDLC
10.7 Requirements elicitation
10.7.1 Stakeholder analysis
10.7.2 Need for requirements gathering
10.7.3 Process for requirements gathering
10.7.4 Requirements gathering tools and techniques
10.7.5 Gap analysis
10.7.6 Prioritisation of requirements
11. Legal, ethical and social issues in information systems
11.1 Information systems ethical and social concerns
11.2 The moral dimension of information systems
11.3 The legal issues in information systems
TOPIC 1
INTRODUCTION TO INFORMATION COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY (ICT)
QUESTION 1
April 2025 Question One A
Explain the following features of the fifth-generation computers:
(i) Artificial intelligence (AI). (2 marks)
(ii) Parallel processing. (2 marks)
(iii) Quantum computing. (2 marks)
QUESTION 2
April 2025 Question Two A and C
(a) Distinguish between “embedded computers” and “integrated computers”. (4 marks)
(c) Examine FOUR roles of Integrated Development Environments (IDEs) in Information Communication Technology (ICT) development. (8 marks)
QUESTION 3
April 2025 Question Five A and B
(a) Outline TWO effects of each of the cases below:
(i) Low hanging bulbs in a computer laboratory. (2 marks)
(ii) Having taps and sinks in the computer laboratory. (2 marks)
(b) Explain the following concepts in system theory:
(i) Equifinality. (2 marks)
(ii) Entropy. (2 marks)
QUESTION 4
April 2025 Question Seven A
Distinguish between “computer onboard devices” and “peripheral devices”. (2 marks)
QUESTION 5
December 2024 Question Three A and B
(a) Outline FOUR potential risks of using outdated software. (4 marks)
(b) Highlight FOUR environmental impacts of Information Communication Technology (ICT) in business. (4 marks)
QUESTION 6
December 2024 Question Five B
Explain FIVE reasons why a non- impact printer may be better than an impact printer in an office environment. (5 marks)
QUESTION 7
August 2024 Question Five D
Giving TWO examples in each case, differentiate between an “application suite” and an “integrated software”. (6 marks)
QUESTION 8
August 2024 Question Seven C
Describe FOUR environmental impact of ICT in business. (4 marks)
QUESTION 9
December 2023 Question Six B and C
(b) State the unit of measuring a computer’s clock speed, RAM size, Hard disk size and monitor size. (4 marks)
(c) Discuss THREE challenges associated with the use of external hard drives. (6 marks)
QUESTION 10
August 2023 Question One A
Explain how the following elements affect the processing power of a computer:
(i) Cache memory. (2 marks)
(ii) Data bus. (2 marks)
(iii) Type of processor. (2 marks)
QUESTION 11
April 2023 Question One A
Veronica and Simon have each bought a computer labelled Computer A and B respectively, with the following specifications:
Required:
Assuming that the cost of the two computers are the same, list TWO strengths of Computer A and TWO strengths of Computer B, describing the impact of each strength.
(4 marks)
QUESTION 12
April 2023 Question Seven B
Citing FOUR reasons, justify why it is necessary for an organisation to sign a contract for the maintenance of computer hardware and software. (4 marks)
QUESTION 13
December 2022 Question Seven C
Suggest TWO strategies that a country could adopt to minimise the digital divide.
(4 marks)
QUESTION 14
August 2022 Question Two A
Giving an example in each case, differentiate between technological convergence and digital convergence as used in information technology communication. (4 marks)
QUESTION 15
April 2022 Question Three C
The Tangaza County Government intends to establish information centres.
Explain two services that are likely to be offered at the centres. (4 marks)
QUESTION 16
December 2021 Question Four B
Propose four duties of an information centre in an organisation. (4 marks)
QUESTION 17
November 2019 Question six B
Many people feel that information communication technology (ICT) has led to massive loss of jobs and retrenchment. The truth of the matter is that ICT has also led to the creation of new jobs in business and industry.
Required:
Identify four such jobs that have been created by ICT.
QUESTION 18
May 2019 Question Two (a)
(i) Describe four distinguishing features between “low-level” and “high-level” programming languages.
(ii) Identify two examples of high-level programming languages.
QUESTION 19
November 2018 Question One C
A firm operates an order system that co-ordinates orders, raw materials and inventories across its three branches. Currently, the orders are processed manually at each branch and communicated to the others over the phone. The management intends to computerise the operations of the firm.
Required:
Suggest three initial Information Communication Technology (ICT) professionals who might be required and their roles.
QUESTION 20
November 2018 Question B and C
b) Differentiate between a “webmaster” and a “webcaster”.
c) Explain the following concepts in reference to information communication technology (ICT):
(i) Mouse arrest.
(ii) Mouse elbow.
QUESTION 21
May 2018 Question Seven C
Examine three functions of an Information Communication Technology (ICT) centre towards end-user computing.
TOPIC 2
OVERVIEW OF OPERATING SYSTEMS
QUESTION 1
April 2025 Question Three A
Differentiate between “indexed sequential files organisation” and “direct file organisation”. (4 marks)
QUESTION 2
December 2024 Question Two A
Explain TWO process management activities of an operating system. (4 marks)
QUESTION 3
December 2024 Question Three D
Examine SIX reasons why an operating system is deemed crucial for the proper functioning of a computer system. (6 marks)
QUESTION 4
December 2024 Question Five D
Describe THREE maintenance utilities in an operating system. (6 marks)
QUESTION 5
August 2024 Question One A and B
(a) Explain the function of an operating system in job accounting. (2 marks)
(b) Highlight THREE ways in which operating systems authenticate users. (3 marks)
QUESTION 6
August 2024 Question Six E
Describe FIVE major activities of an operating system with regard to process management. (5 marks)
QUESTION 7
August 2024 Question Seven B
Outline FOUR activities of an operating system in regard to management of secondary storage. (4 marks)
QUESTION 8
April 2024 Question One B
Identify SIX factors to consider in the selection and acquisition of a computer operating system. (6 marks)
QUESTION 9
April 2024 Question Four B
Explain FOUR circumstances when batch operating system would be most appropriate.
(4 marks)
QUESTION 10
April 2024 Question Five B
Explain TWO reasons why a major operating system must evolve over time. (4 marks)
QUESTION 11
April 2024 Question Six A
Explain TWO reasons for multi-booting. (2 marks)
QUESTION 12
August 2023 Question Two C
Examine THREE ways in which an operating system provides data security in a computer system. (6 marks)
QUESTION 13
August 2023 Question Six B
Outline FOUR reasons why Read Only Memory (ROM) is preferred for storing firmware. (4 marks)
QUESTION 14
August 2023 Question Seven A
Explain TWO ways in which an operating system acts as a resource manager. (4 marks)
QUESTION 15
April 2023 Question One C
Highlight FIVE activities that the operating system executes in relation to process management. (5 marks)
QUESTION 16
April 2023 Question Four A
Give TWO reasons why an operating system must evolve over time. (4 marks)
QUESTION 17
April 2023 Question Five C
Enumerate FIVE reasons why memory management is required in a computer system.
(5 marks)
QUESTION 18
April 2023 Question Six D
Describe FIVE features of time-sharing operating system.
(5 marks)
QUESTION 19
December 2022 Question Six D
Explain THREE factors to consider when choosing an operating system for a computer.
(6 marks)
QUESTION 20
April 2021 Question Three A
Discuss six reasons why a computer operating system is considered as a resource manager. (6 marks)
QUESTION 21
November 2019 Question Six B
Explain the following types of operating systems:
i. Time sharing operating system.
ii. Real time operating system
QUESTION 22
May 2018 Question Three C
Discuss five types of operating systems.
TOPIC 3
OVERVIEW OF APPLICATION PACKAGES
QUESTION 1
April 2025 Question Three A
Opiyo Odoyo wishes to create a presentation for his company’s annual general meeting (AGM). Opiyo Odoyo has never created a presentation before using PowerPoint application.
Explain THREE ways that Opiyo Odoyo could use to create a new presentation in PowerPoint. (6 marks)
QUESTION 2
April 2025 Question Seven B
Explain FOUR components of the task bar. (8 marks)
QUESTION 3
December 2024 Question Three C
Discuss THREE roles of source document integration in computerised accounting systems. (6 marks)
QUESTION 4
December 2024 Question Four B
Explain FOUR benefits of using goal seek in financial analysis. (4 marks)
QUESTION 5
December 2024 Question Six B
Identify FOUR features to look for when selecting an accounting software for use in an organisation. (4 marks)
QUESTION 6
December 2024 Question Seven A and D
(a) Outline FOUR features that should be considered when choosing a presentation software. (4 marks)
(d) Citing an example in each case, explain THREE methods of linking worksheets in a spreadsheet. (6 marks)
QUESTION 7
August 2024 Question Two A
(a) Explain TWO benefits of using pivot tables in a spreadsheet software. (4 marks)
(b) Outline FOUR applications of mobile computing in the financial sector. (4 marks)
QUESTION 8
August 2024 Question Three D
Using an appropriate scenario, demonstrate how you would solve a business problem using spreadsheet solver. (6 marks)
QUESTION 9
August 2024 Question Six C
Highlight FOUR circumstances that would necessitate an organisation to use mail merge feature in a word processing program. (4 marks)
QUESTION 10
April 2024 Question Three C and D
(c) Explain the following functions as used in spreadsheet application:
(i) SUMIF. (2 marks)
(ii) PMT. (2 marks)
(d) An organisation installed an inhouse developed application software to support their operations.
State FOUR advantages they would gain by using this software. (4 marks)
QUESTION 11
April 2024 Question Four A
Describe TWO reasons that would necessitate the use of water mark on a word processing document. (4 marks)
QUESTION 12
April 2024 Question Six C and D
(c) Business owners looking to manage financial data tend to embrace two primary options; spreadsheets and accounting software.
Evaluate THREE reasons why businesses prefer using accounting softwares.
(6 marks)
(d) Explain THREE differences between “word processing software” and “desktop publishing software”. (6 marks)
QUESTION 13
December 2023 Question One A
Highlight TWO benefits of linking worksheets in a spreadsheet program. (2 marks)
QUESTION 14
December 2023 Question Two B
Using an example, explain the use of the “IF” function in a spreadsheet application.
(4 marks)
QUESTION 15
December 2023 Question Four A
Explain TWO circumstances that would necessitate the use of speaker notes during a presentation. (4 marks)
QUESTION 16
December 2023 Question Six A
Explain the term “proofreading” as used in a word processing program. (2 marks)
QUESTION 17
December 2023 Question Seven A and B
(a) Highlight TWO bookkeeping capabilities of a computerised accounting software. (2 marks)
(b) Explain FOUR application areas of “What if” analysis feature in spreadsheet application. (4 marks)
QUESTION 18
August 2023 Question One C and D
c) Highlight FOUR salient features of a Computerised Accounting Software (CAS).
(4 marks)
d) Outline SIX advantages of a pivot table report. (6 marks)
QUESTION 19
August 2023 Question Two B
Explain the significance of the following FIVE features of a presentation program.
(5 marks)
QUESTION 20
August 2023 Question Four B
Highlight SIX advantages of Conditional Formatting in a spreadsheet program. (6 marks)
QUESTION 21
August 2023 Question Five B
Highlight FIVE reasons why an organisation may choose an off-the-shelf software package. (5 marks)
QUESTION 22
April 2023 Question Two C
David Omondi is the owner of a Home Appliances shop at the Douala Branch. Details of items sold by him during the month of March 2023 were given below:
Required:
Explain the steps required to prepare a pivot table with the above information to show the sales for each brand using a spreadsheet application such as LibreOffice Cac. Use proper cell references in your explanation. (7 marks)
QUESTION 23
April 2023 Question Six B
Outline FOUR benefits associated with the use of pivot tables. (4 marks)
QUESTION 24
December 2022 Question One C and D
Using an example, explain how one would use “Goal seek” function in a business.
(5 marks)
Explain THREE problems that could be encountered when using a computerised accounting software. (6 marks)
QUESTION 25
December 2022 Question Three C
Veronica stored word processing files in a flash disk when working from a home desktop computer. She has realised that the files could no longer open at her place of work.
Required:
Suggest FOUR reasons why some files may not open despite being visible on the flash disk. (4 marks)
QUESTION 26
December 2022 Question Four A
Differentiate between an “accounting package” and a “spreadsheet” based on the following features:
(i) Report generation. (2 marks)
(ii) Audit trail. (2 marks)
QUESTION 27
December 2022 Question Six A
(i) Highlight TWO features of a presentation program that are not available in a word processing program. (2 marks)
(ii) Explain THREE contexts in which one would need to use a presentation program instead of a word processing program. (3 marks)
QUESTION 28
August 2022 Question One E
Explain the purpose of HLOOKUP as used in spreadsheet applications. (2 marks)
QUESTION 29
August 2022 Question Two E
Using an illustration, explain a pivot table as used in spreadsheet applications. (4 marks)
QUESTION 30
August 2022 Question Three C, D and E
(c) Identify the type of cell referencing used in the spreadsheet expressions below:
(i) = RANK($C$3 : $A$10,0) (1 mark)
(ii) = SUM(A$3 : A12) (1 mark)
(d) Differentiate between sorting and filtering as used in worksheet data management.
(2 marks)
(e) Differentiate between proofreading and formatting a document as used in word processing. (2 marks)
QUESTION 31
August 2022 Question Four C
Explain the following features of a presentation package:
(i) Transition effects. (1 mark)
(ii) Speaker notes. (1 mark)
(iii) Templates. (1 mark)
QUESTION 32
August 2022 Question Five B
In each of the following, explain how a spreadsheet program is used:
(i) Accounting. (2 marks)
(ii) Forecasting. (2 marks)
QUESTION 33
April 2022 Question One A
Explain five factors to consider when selecting a spreadsheet software. (5 marks)
QUESTION 34
April 2022 Question Three D
State two challenges of using computerised accounting software in an organisation.
(2 marks)
QUESTION 35
December 2021 Question four E
(e) (i) Define “cell referencing” in the context of spreadsheet applications. (2 marks)
(ii) Using an example, explain one type of cell referencing. (2 marks)
QUESTION 36
December 2021 Question Five D and E
(d) Study the worksheet given below and answer the questions that follow:
Required:
(i) Interpret the function displayed in cell G1. (2 marks)
(ii) State the value to be displayed in cell G1 on execution of the function. (2 marks)
(e) Veronica would like to display the progress of her project to a panel of examiners using a presentation application.
Outline two ways in which she could display her presentation in slide show mode.
(2 marks)
QUESTION 37
December 2021 Question Six C
Using an example, demonstrate how you would use a formula to link data between two worksheets. (4 marks)
QUESTION 38
December 2021 Question Seven D
Outline two features of a word processing program. (2 marks)
QUESTION 39
November 2019 Question Four C
Describe the following word processing features:
i. Print preview.
ii. Watermark.
iii. Indent.
QUESTION 40
November 2018 Question Four C
Describe three documents created during mail merging in word processing
QUESTION 41
November 2018 Question Five C
Suggest four business processes that could be supported by spreadsheet software.
QUESTION 42
November 2018 Question Seven A and B
a) State six basic types of desktop applications.
b) With the aid of diagrams, illustrate three types of charts that might be used to analyse business trends in spreadsheets
QUESTION 43
May 2018 Question Three A
i) Explain the term “conditional formatting” as used in spreadsheets.
ii) Highlight two benefits of electronic spreadsheets over manual worksheets.
TOPIC 4
COMPUTER NETWORKS
QUESTION 1
April 2025 Question Three B
Highlight FIVE factors to consider when selecting a transmission media. (5 marks)
QUESTION 2
April 2025 Question Five C
Examine SIX roles of the Internet of Things (IoT) in modern networks. (12 marks)
QUESTION 3
April 2025 Question Seven C
(i) Explain the term “WLAN” as used in relation to computer networks. (2 marks)
(ii) Discuss FOUR features of WLANs. (8 marks)
QUESTION 4
December 2024 Question Two B
Explore FOUR roles of edge computing in Internet of Things (IoT). (4 marks)
QUESTION 5
December 2024 Question Four D
Currently, the use of wireless data transmission media has increased. However, it still faces many challenges.
Evaluate THREE such challenges. (6 marks)
QUESTION 6
December 2024 Question Six C
Highlight FOUR potential benefits of implementing Internet of Everything (IoE) in businesses. (4 marks)
QUESTION 7
August 2024 Question Two C
Describe FOUR ways in which the Internet of Things (IoT) impacts our daily lives.
(4 marks)
QUESTION 8
August 2024 Question Three A
Highlight THREE important factors to consider when choosing a network topology.
(3 marks)
QUESTION 9
August 2024 Question Four B and C
(b) Highlight FOUR limitations of cloud computing. (4 marks)
(c) Explain THREE circumstances that could necessitate setting up of a Local Area Network (LAN) in an organisation. (6 marks)
QUESTION 10
August 2024 Question Five E
Examine THREE factors that could be used to determine the capabilities of a data transmission medium. (6 marks)
QUESTION 11
August 2024 Question Six A and B
(a) Outline THREE characteristics of mobile cloud computing application. (3 marks)
(b) Explain FOUR services offered by an Internet Service Provider (ISP). (4 marks)
QUESTION 12
April 2024 Question Two C
A company uses cloud computing technology for data storage.
Explain THREE ethical challenges the company might face while using this technology.
(6 marks)
QUESTION 13
December 2023 Question Two D
Analyse THREE factors that should be considered when creating a computer network.
(6 marks)
QUESTION 14
December 2023 Question Three B
Highlight FOUR benefits of a network operating system to an organisation. (4 marks)
QUESTION 15
December 2023 Question Four B
Baraka Company limited networked their computers to enhance their operations.
Outline FOUR methods they could use to maintain security for their information in the network. (4 marks)
QUESTION 16
August 2023 Question One B
List FOUR limitations of star network topology. (4 marks)
QUESTION 17
August 2023 Question Three B
Explain TWO types of computer networks under each of the following criterion:
(i) Functionality. (4 marks)
(ii) Ownership. (4 marks)
(iii) Transmission media. (4 marks)
QUESTION 18
August 2023 Question Four C
Explain THREE components of a computer network. (6 marks)
QUESTION 19
August 2023 Question Five A and C
a) List FIVE limitations of computer networking. (5 marks)
c) Highlight FIVE benefits of cloud storage. (5 marks)
QUESTION 20
August 2023 Question Six A
(i) State TWO examples of Network Operating System (NOS) from different software manufacturers. (2 marks)
(ii) List TWO advantages and TWO disadvantages of Network Operating Systems (NOS). (4 marks)
QUESTION 21
August 2023 Question Seven B
Highlight FOUR benefits of Internet of Things (IoT) in smart home. (4 marks)
QUESTION 22
April 2023 Question Six A
XYZ Ltd. invited an ICT consultant to set up a computer network. The consultant linked all the computers to every other in the network. The nodes were connected to every other via a dedicated link so that every node features a point-to-point connection to the opposite node.
Required:
(i) State the type of network topology on the above scenario. (1 mark)
(ii) Highlight FIVE benefits associated with the topology. (5 marks)
QUESTION 23
December 2022 Question Two B
Explain TWO limitations of using “Internet of things” (IoT) technology. (4 marks)
QUESTION 24
December 2022 Question Three A
(i) Differentiate between “Intranet” and “Extranet” as used in computer networks.
(2 marks)
(ii) Outline FOUR limitations of using “extranet” as a computer network in an organisation. (4 marks)
QUESTION 25
December 2022 Question Four C
Explain how cloud computing supports e-commerce operations. (4 marks)
QUESTION 26
December 2022 Question Seven A
Explain TWO characteristics of a “peer to peer” computer network. (2 marks)
QUESTION 27
August 2022 Question Four D
The organisation where you work intends to set up a local area network.
Advise your management team on three hardware components required to accomplish the above task. (6 marks)
QUESTION 28
August 2022 Question Six C
Explain four application areas of cloud computing technology in a governance/accounting services firm. (4 marks)
QUESTION 29
August 2022 Question Seven B
John Mbululu intends to implement cloud computing in his organisation but he has several concerns about cloud computing.
Suggest three possible concerns for John Mbululu. (3 marks)
QUESTION 30
April 2022 Question Four B
Explain four reasons why an organisation may prefer to install a peer to peer networking model. (8 marks)
QUESTION 31
April 2022 Question Five A
(a) (i) Explain the term “smart home” as used in the world of technology. (1 mark)
(ii) Describe the importance of the “Internet of Things” in the smart home. (4 marks)
QUESTION 32
April 2022 Question Seven A
The Internet of Things (loT) has grown very rapidly and emerged to be a large part of how human beings live, communicate and conduct business. While web-enabled devices are turning our global rights into a great switched-on operating area, the implementation of IoT has several challenges.
Discuss four security challenges that accompany IoT. (8 marks)
QUESTION 33
December 2021 Question Seven C
Explain three types of applications of Internet of Things (IoT) in the government sector.
(6 marks)
QUESTION 34
November 2019 Question Three A and B
a) Discuss three factors that need to be considered when selecting a network topology.
Mega Company Ltd. has setup a voicemail service to support clients country-wide.
Required:
(i) Identify three ways in which the company would benefit from such a service.
(ii) Highlight three disadvantages of such a service to the customers.
QUESTION 35
November 2019 Question Six A and D
a) Suggest four benefits that might accrue to an organisation as a result of adopting cloud computing.
d) Examine three ways through which intranets could add business value to an organisation.
QUESTION 36
May 2019 Question Six A (i)
In the context of computing, differentiate the following terms:
“Internet of everything” and “internet of things”.
QUESTION 37
November 2018 Question Three A and E
a) Name the following network topologies:
Security in cloud computing is a major concern.
Required:
Analyse four attributes to be considered before deploying a particular resource to the cloud.
QUESTION 38
November 2018 Question Six C
Distinguish between the following terms as used in data transmission:
(i) “Simplex” and “full duplex”.
(ii) “Synchronous” and “asynchronous”.
QUESTION 39
November 2018 Question Seven B and C
b) Distinguish between “Wi-Fi” and “Wimax” technology as used in communications.
c) Explain three roles of Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) in computer networks.
QUESTION 40
May 2018 Question Two A (i)
Differentiate between the following terminologies as used in management information systems:
i) Green computing” and “cloud computing
QUESTION 41
May 2018 Question Three A
Using examples, analyse three benefits of telecommunication networks in business
QUESTION 42
May 2018 Question Four C
Ufanisi Ltd. is a newly established organisation: The company is planning to network all the computers and has sought advice from the IT Consultant. The Consultant has • advised Ufanisi Ltd. to set up a peer-to-peer network and later on convert to client-server network.
Required:
Justify the advice given by the IT Consultant.
QUESTION 43
May 2018 Question Seven A and B
Distinguish between “a multiplexer” and “a front-end processor”.
Analyse four major characteristics of a local area network.
TOPIC 5
THE INTERNET
QUESTION 1
April 2025 Question Four B
Outline SIX roles of search engines. (6 marks)
QUESTION 2
December 2024 Question One C
Outline SIX ways in which the internet can be used in banking and finance. (6 marks)
QUESTION 3
December 2023 Question One D
Examine FOUR challenges associated with cloud storage. (8 marks)
QUESTION 4
December 2022 Question Seven D
Simon has established an accounting firm in a busy town and employed seven assistants. However, the office space is not enough to accommodate all the staff and he has approached you for assistance.
Required:
(i) Explain THREE modern ICT technologies that Simon could adopt to maximise employees’ productivity despite space constraints. (6 marks)
(ii) Explain TWO possible disadvantages that Simon could face in adopting any of the technologies in (d) (i) above. (4 marks)
QUESTION 5
August 2022 Question Three B and G
(b) Explain the bookmark feature in the context of the internet browsing. (2 marks)
(g) Explain each of the following terms as used in internet:
(i) Cookies. (1 mark)
(ii) Blog. (1 mark)
QUESTION 6
April 2022 Question One D
Examine three impacts of the internet on the education sector. (3 marks)
QUESTION 7
April 2022 Question Six B
(b) (i) Explain the term “Uniform Resource Locator (URL)”. (2 marks)
(ii) Using an example, explain the functions of each of the three key parts of a URL.
(6 marks)
QUESTION 8
December 2021 Question Three B
Most companies have embraced the use of cloud technology though they are facing challenges in its use.
Explain three such challenges. (3 marks)
QUESTION 9
December 2021 Question Four A
Highlight four characteristics of Internet of Things (IoT). (4 marks)
QUESTION 10
December 2021 Question Five A
Describe five challenges associated with the use of internet. (5 marks)
QUESTION 11
December 2021 Question Six A
(a) Evaluate the impact of the internet on the following competitive forces:
(i) Threat of new entrants. (2 marks)
(ii) Suppliers’ bargaining power. (2 marks)
(iii) Customers’ bargaining power. (2 marks)
(iv) Substitute products or services. (2 marks)
QUESTION 12
November 2019 Question Five C
Outline six disadvantages associated with the use of internet.
QUESTION 13
May 2019 Question Five C
Explain the functions supported by the following internet services:
(i) Newsgroups.
(ii) Telnet
QUESTION 14
May 2019 Question Seven B
The internet has offered both benefits and challenges to businesses and their customers.
Required:
i. Describe two business activities which could be done on the internet.
ii. Highlight three positive impacts of internet technology to the business sector in your country.
QUESTION 15
November 2018 Question Three C
i) Define the term “web browser”.
ii) State two commonly used web browsers.
QUESTION 16
May 2018 Question Six C
Explain the following web-related terms:
i. Web browser.
ii. Hyperlink.
iii. Hypertext document
TOPIC 6
DATA SECURITY
QUESTION 1
April 2025 Question Four A and C
(a) Explain the following validation terms:
(i) Presence check. (2 marks)
(ii) Range check. (2 marks)
(iii) Data type check. (2 marks)
(c) Maliki Mission Hospital, located in Western Kenya, offers both curative and preventive health services mainly targeting elderly people. During the integration of Maliki Health System with the recently introduced Social Health Authority (SHA) system, the hospital’s information system was hacked, leading to exposure of patients’ medical records.
Required:
Examine FOUR legal obligations that the hospital has towards its clients. (8 marks
QUESTION 2
December 2024 Question One A
Highlight FOUR ways of recovering data lost through accidental erasure. (4 marks)
QUESTION 3
December 2024 Question Seven B
Distinguish between “incremental backup” and “differential backup”. (4 marks)
QUESTION 4
August 2024 Question Two D
Examine FOUR ways on how an organisation should handle sensitive data in order to ensure confidentiality, prevent unauthorised access and data misuse. (8 marks)
QUESTION 5
August 2024 Question Three B
An organisation processes and stores large volumes of data in an information system.
Explain THREE data security goals that the organisation might aim to achieve in the above scenario. (3 marks)
QUESTION 6
April 2024 Question One C
Every organisation, regardless of its size or industry needs to prioritise the implementation of robust data security controls.
Explain FOUR types of data security controls. (8 marks)
QUESTION 7
April 2024 Question Five C
Examine THREE methods that could be used to prevent social engineering related attacks. (6 marks)
QUESTION 8
December 2023 Question Seven C
Outline SIX hindrances to the adoption and success of voice user interface technology.
(6 marks)
QUESTION 9
August 2023 Question Two A
Highlight THREE principles used to measure the integrity of data in an information system. (3 marks)
QUESTION 10
August 2023 Question Four D
Analyse SIX benefits of developing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP). (6 marks)
QUESTION 11
April 2023 Question One B
Explain FIVE ways of protecting yourself from identity theft.
(5 marks)
QUESTION 12
April 2023 Question Two A
(i) Explain THREE reasons why most threats to an organisation’s information system are contributed by insiders. (3 marks)
(ii) State FOUR ways of preparing against insider threats.
(4 marks)
QUESTION 13
April 2023 Question Three C
Bidii Company has established that its information is being electronically eavesdropped through their servers.
Outline FOUR measures that the company could put in place to minimise this crime.
(4 marks)
QUESTION 14
April 2023 Question Four C
(i) Explain TWO basic control measures that organisations could take to improve security on personal devices that employees connect to an organisation’s network.
(4 marks)
(ii) Describe THREE Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) security best practices in an organisation. (6 marks)
QUESTION 15
April 2023 Question Five A and B
(a) Highlight FIVE objectives of an information’s system design. (5 marks)
(b) Explain FIVE possible reasons why an organisation may decide to replace an information system. (5 marks)
QUESTION 16
April 2023 Question Six C
Evaluate FIVE restoration procedures that could be used to recover lost data. (5 marks)
QUESTION 17
August 2022 Question One D
Outline three measurers that you could include in your business continuity plan.
(3 marks)
QUESTION 18
August 2022 Question Three F
A comprehensive backup plan is an essential tool for information security for the entire organisation. Not only should the data on the corporate servers be backed up, but individual computers used throughout the organisation should also be backed up.
With reference to the above statement, discuss three components of a good backup plan.
(6 marks)
QUESTION 19
August 2022 Question Six A
An insurance company has decided that it no longer requires a physical Head Office. Its strategic aim is to become a virtual organisation. The company’s auditors have concerns that information held by the virtual company would lack security.
Required:
Describe three measures that could be adopted to ensure the information in the insurance company remain secure. (6 marks)
QUESTION 20
April 2022 Question One B
Explain the following terms as applied to data security in e-commerce.
(i) Privacy. (2 marks)
(ii) Integrity. (2 marks)
(iii) Authentication. (2 marks)
(iv) Non-repudiation. (2 marks)
QUESTION 21
April 2022 Question Three B
It is possible to lose a laptop, a mobile phone or a flash disk.
Discuss four ways you could protect the data in your device to minimise data breach.
(8 marks)
QUESTION 22
April 2022 Question Four A
Discuss the importance of information security policies. (5 marks)
QUESTION 23
April 2022 Question Six C
Assess three benefits of data backup and recovery procedures in a business. (6 marks)
QUESTION 24
November 2019 Question One B
Examine how the following security risks affect companies that have established e-commerce operations:
i. Creation of counterfeit sites.
ii. Malicious alterations to websites.
iii. Unauthorised access to sensitive information.
iv. Denial of service.
QUESTION 25
November 2019 Question Five A
Assess six logical controls which could be instituted by a business to secure it from losing money through electronic fraud.
QUESTION 26
May 2019 Question Four C
Cherry Wanja has been assigned the task of preparing a contingency and disaster recovery plan for technological and automated systems of the organisation she works for.
Required:
Outline two purposes of the plan during the following moments of a disaster:
(i) Before.
(ii) During.
(iii) After.
QUESTION 27
May 2019 Question Seven B
When assessing risks facing an information system, one would need to consider the impact, likelihood and urgency.
With regard to the above statement, explain:
i. Impact.
ii. Likelihood.
iii. Urgency.
QUESTION 28
November 2018 Question Four B and C
b) Suggest five reasons why voice input could be used as a reliable form of security in management information systems.
c) Outline three examples of computer crimes in each of the following categories:
i. Crimes that target computer networks directly.
ii. Crimes facilitated by computer networks.
QUESTION 29
November 2018 Question Five A (ii) and (iii)
ii) Safeland Ltd. is a transport and logistics company operating in the East African region. The management of Safeland Ltd. has decided that the company no longer requires a head office and its strategic aim is to become a virtual organisation.
Required:
Describe three measures that could be adopted to ensure that the information held by the organisation remains secure.
iii) Analyse five benefits of having a disaster recovery plan implemented for management information system in Safeland Ltd.
QUESTION 30
May 2018 Question Two A (ii)
Differentiate between the following terminologies as used in management information systems:
“Loss of infrastructure” and “denial of service”.
QUESTION 31
May 2018 Question Four A and B
a) The ICT Manager of Usalama Ltd. is concerned about the security of the organisation’s information. He has proposed that all the current passwords be changed into more secure passwords.
Required:
Highlight six guidelines that must be followed to ensure that the new passwords cannot be easily cracked.
b) You have been asked to prepare a document on disaster recovery.
Required:
In the context of Information Communication Technology (ICT) risk management, propose three items that you would include in the document.
QUESTION 32
May 2018 Question Five C
Suggest four reasons why it is necessary for an organisation to backup its data
QUESTION 33
May 2018 Question Six D
Debrix Company has installed a biometric system to control access to its offices.
Required:
Highlight examples of biometric data that could be used in such a system.
TOPIC 7
INFORMATION SYSTEMS IN AN ENTERPRISE
QUESTION 1
April 2025 Question Three D
Summarise FIVE negative consequences of instituting information systems in an organisation. (5 marks)
QUESTION 2
April 2025 Question Six
(a) Describe FOUR applications of management information systems (MIS) in enhancing operational efficiency. (8 marks)
(b) With regards to Accounting Information Systems (AIS), discuss SIX roles that encryption of data plays in securing financial transactions. (12 marks)
QUESTION 3
December 2024 Question One D
Examine SIX challenges businesses face when integrating enterprise applications for business process integration. (6 marks)
QUESTION 4
December 2024 Question Four A
Describe FOUR ways in which an information system supports decision-making within an organisation. (4 marks)
QUESTION 5
December 2024 Question Six D
Examine FOUR benefits of conducting a post-implementation review (PIR) of an information system project. (4 marks)
QUESTION 6
August 2024 Question One D
Enumerate FIVE factors to consider when designing an information system output.
(5 marks)
QUESTION 7
August 2024 Question Four A
Explain TWO circumstances that would necessitate an organisation to use the outsourcing method to acquire an information system. (4 marks)
QUESTION 8
April 2024 Question Two B
Outline SIX moral dimensions associated with information systems. (6 marks)
QUESTION 9
December 2023 Question Two C
Explain THREE ways in which a transaction processing system helps in improving operations of an organisation. (6 marks)
QUESTION 10
December 2023 Question Five A and B
(a) Examine TWO obstacles/challenges that could be faced by organisations when implementing a management information system. (4 marks)
(b) Highlight SIX benefits of post-implementation review of an information systems project. (6 marks)
QUESTION 11
December 2023 Question Six D
Examine FOUR legal issues associated with the use of information systems. (8 marks)
QUESTION 12
December 2023 Question Seven D
Discuss FOUR ways in which an organisation could optimise the use of information systems to ensure improved productivity in a functional perspective. (8 marks)
QUESTION 13
August 2023 Question Three C
Assess THREE information system vulnerabilities and their respective countermeasures.
(6 marks)
QUESTION 14
August 2023 Question Four A
Distinguish between “Executive Support System (ESS)” and “Decision Support System (DSS)”. (2 marks)
QUESTION 15
August 2023 Question Six C and D
Summarise FOUR ways in which a transaction processing system improves operations of an organisation. (4 marks)
A library management system is an example of an information system.
In relation to the above statement, state TWO relevant examples of the following items in a library system:
(i) Data. (2 marks)
(ii) Processing. (2 marks)
(iii) Information (2 marks)
QUESTION 16
August 2023 Question Seven D
Examine SIX benefits associated with business processes integration. (6 marks)
QUESTION 17
April 2023 Question Three D and E
d) Outline FOUR factors that could influence the choice of an information system.
(4 marks)
e) Explain THREE ways in which decision support systems are applied in an organisation. (6 marks)
QUESTION 18
April 2023 Question Seven A
ABC Enterprises Limited has commenced the process of integrating its current business operations with an ERP.
Required:
(i) Outline TWO ways the ABC Enterprises Limited could benefit from the integration.
(2 marks)
(ii) Highlight THREE challenges that could arise with such integration. (3 marks)
QUESTION 19
December 2022 Question One A
State FOUR disadvantages of implementing information systems in an organisation.
(4 marks)
QUESTION 20
December 2022 Question Three B
Organisations use different types of information systems.
Required:
(i) List THREE types of information systems used by management. (3 marks)
(ii) State the input, processes and output of information systems used by management.
(3 marks)
(iii) Explain FOUR enterprise information system characteristics that support unstructured decision making in organisations. (4 marks)
QUESTION 21
December 2022 Question Four D and E
Explain FOUR social issues that may arise from the use of information systems.
(4 marks)
Assess FIVE ways in which general ICT controls ensure the reliability of data generated by information systems. (5 marks)
QUESTION 22
December 2022 Question Six B
Enumerate FIVE reasons why an organisation might opt to use subcontractors for its information system needs. (5 marks)
QUESTION 23
August 2022 Question One C
Describe five moral dimensions of information systems. (5 marks)
QUESTION 24
August 2022 Question Two B and C
(b) XYZ Company Ltd. intends to develop an information system for its operations.
Outline three strategies that the board could put in place to ensure the success of this project. (3 marks)
(c) A manager in an entertaining industry intends to use data driven decision support system to design a new product.
Outline three characteristics that the system should possess. (3 marks)
QUESTION 25
August 2022 Question Five D
Most organisations align their information systems functions to their business strategic plan.
Explain three benefits of this alignment. (6 marks)
QUESTION 26
August 2022 Question Six D
Identify five major management challenges to building and implementing information systems within an organisation. (5 marks)
QUESTION 27
April 2022 Question Two A
ABC Ltd. has opted to adopt a decision support system in the restructure of its business processes.
Required:
(i) State three moral dimensions the company would consider from this move. (3 marks)
(i) Outline three legal issues the company is likely to consider from this move. (3 marks)
QUESTION 28
April 2022 Question Four C
Outline seven indicators of a successful information system. (7 marks)
QUESTION 29
April 2022 Question Five B
Explain three reasons why organisations pursue business process integration. (6 marks)
QUESTION 30
April 2022 Question Seven B
Identify four benefits of requirements gathering process in an information system development. (4 marks)
QUESTION 31
December 2021 Question One B
(b) (i) Explain five benefits of a strategic information system to a business. (5 marks)
(ii) Highlight five benefits of aligning an organisation’s information communication technology (ICT) with its business strategy. (5 marks)
QUESTION 32
December 2021 Question Two
(a) Discuss “sales and marketing systems” from a functional perspective. (5 marks)
(b) Explain five moral dimensions of the information age in the context of information systems. (5 marks)
(c) Alpha Limited is in the process of automating its operations.
State four types of office automation systems that the company should adopt.
(4 marks)
(d) ABC Company intends to undertake an information systems project.
Outline three challenges that the company is likely to face. (3 marks)
(e) Explain three goals of a transaction processing system to an organisation. (3 marks)
QUESTION 33
December 2021 Question Three D
Describe four features of systems approach to information systems. (4 marks)
QUESTION 34
December 2021 Question Four C
ABC Transport company has opted to train its users before a new system is implemented.
Suggest four benefits of training users before implementing a new information system.
(4 marks)
QUESTION 35
December 2021 Question Seven A and B
(a) Describe each of the following types of information systems as used in organisations:
(i) Transaction processing system. (2 marks)
(ii) Management reporting system. (2 marks)
(iii) Decision support system. (2 marks)
(b) XYZ Company Lid. intends to implement a new information system.
Explain three organisational factors that should be considered to ensure success of the system. (6 marks)
QUESTION 36
November 2019 Question Four A, B and C
(a) Highlight four factors that need to be considered when selecting a management information system.
(b) An organisation is intending to install an enterprise resource planning system (ERP).
Explaining the meaning of ERP, highlight four benefits to be derived by the organisation from the use of ERP.
(c) Nyasake Ltd. acquired an off-the-shelf package from “not-a-very-well-known” vendor. The package became problematic only after six months from the time of acquisition. The management of Nyasake Ltd. invited the vendor from whom they procured the package and demanded that the vendor quickly do the fixes for normal operations to resume. After the vendor reported to have completed the fixes, operations resumed without any tests being performed. Two weeks later, operations nearly came to a standstill because of the software issues.
Required:
Examine five measures that should have been put in place before acquisition of the above package.
QUESTION 37
May 2019 Question Four A
The following are decisions that are taken in a certain hierarchically managed company:
i. The payment period is to be extended by five days to improve cash flows.
ii. Specified details on invoices must be checked and stamped to show that the checks have been carried out fully and satisfactorily.
iii. Suppliers who supply over Sh.500,000 worth of goods per annum join the company’s electronic data interchange network.
Required:
In each case, explain the type of the decision made by the managers in the hierarchy.
QUESTION 38
May 2019 Question Five C
Asha Nzale has a hardware shop and lately, she is finding the task of managing daily sales in the shop overwhelming.
Required:
i. Propose a retail system that she should acquire.
ii. Apart from enhancing the speed of operation, summarise five other benefits that Asha will gain from using such a system.
QUESTION 39
November 2018 Question One A
Describe each of the following changes brought by implementing information systems in organisations:
(i) Paradigm shift.
(ii) Rationalisation
QUESTION 40
November 2018 Question Two C
Highlight two characteristics of a good management information system
QUESTION 41
November 2018 Question Five A
Safeland Ltd. is a transport and logistics company operating in the East African region. The management of Safeland Ltd. has decided that the company no longer requires a head office and its strategic aim is to become a virtual organisation.
Required:
Assess three ways in which an office information system (OIS) could aid in supporting management decision making in the virtual organisation.
QUESTION 42
November 2018 Question Seven D and E
d) Outline five functions of a database administrator in an information system.
e) Describe the following terms in the context of information systems:
(i) Office automation.
(ii) Vertically integrated information system.
QUESTION 43
May 2018 Question Three C and D
c) Discuss six essential accounting information systems used in business.
d) Explain three roles of enterprise collaboration systems in business.
QUESTION 44
May 2018 Question Five A and D
(a) Explain three roles of management during the development of an information system in an organisation.
(d) (i) Explain the term “database mirroring” as used in information systems.
(ii) Evaluate three benefits an organisation might derive from database mirroring
QUESTION 45
May 2018 Question Six B and C
b) Describe the nature of each of the following reports generated by a Management Information System (MIS):
(i) Push reports.
(ii) Exception reports.
c) Lynnet Wanjiru has been presented with the following features of an information system:
• High security.
• Interactive.
• Network connections, email access, face book.
• Access to internal and external data.
• Modelling and analysis capability.
• Drill up and down.
• What-if analysis.
• Ad hoc reports.
Required:
I. Identify the information system described above.
II. Suggest the level in management where the system identified in (c)(i) above is applied.
III. Highlight five benefits of the system identified in (c)(i) above to an organisation.
TOPIC 8
E-COMMERCE
QUESTION 1
December 2024 Question Five C
One of the common e-commerce security issues is lack of trust in the privacy and e-commerce security.
Explain THREE methods attackers use to compromise e-commerce security. (6 marks)
QUESTION 2
December 2024 Question Six A
Outline TWO strategies to overcome each of the following challenges in electronic commerce:
(i) Security challenge. (2 marks)
(ii) High competition challenge. (2 marks)
(iii) High customer acquisition costs. (2 marks)
(iv) Challenges in maintaining customer trust. (2 marks)
QUESTION 3
August 2024 Question Three C
(i) Examine TWO challenges of e-commerce infrastructure. (4 marks)
(ii) Describe FOUR ways that could be used to secure an e-commerce infrastructure.
(4 marks)
QUESTION 4
April 2024 Question Four D
Highlight SIX challenges of e-commerce in developing countries. (6 marks)
QUESTION 5
April 2024 Question Five D
Explain TWO advantages and TWO disadvantages of digital wallets as an ecommerce payment method. (4 marks)
QUESTION 6
December 2023 Question One C
Explain THREE desirable features of e-commerce websites that could enable customers find products quickly. (6 marks)
QUESTION 7
December 2023 Question Five C
Enumerate SIX ways to secure e-commerce transactions from various threats. (6 marks)
QUESTION 8
August 2023 Question Five D
Examine FIVE major components of e-commerce infrastructure. (5 marks)
QUESTION 9
August 2023 Question Four B
Explain THREE impacts of e-commerce on customers. (6 marks)
QUESTION 10
December 2022 Question One B
Explain FIVE computer hardware components that are required when establishing a multimedia platform for e-commerce. (5 marks)
QUESTION 11
December 2022 Question Two C
Explain THREE ways in which e-commerce could be used to optimise business opportunities in a large hotel. (6 marks)
QUESTION 12
December 2022 Question Five A
List FOUR types of software used to enable e-commerce business. (4 marks)
QUESTION 13
August 2022 Question Two D
Suggest how a business could overcome each of the following e-commerce challenges.
(i) Payment fraud. (2 marks)
(ii) Lack of visitors to the business website. (2 marks)
(iii) Theft of customer information. (2 marks)
QUESTION 14
April 2022 Question Five C
E-commerce customers should be able to find the product they are looking for quickly.
Identify three best practice features for e-commerce websites. (3 marks)
QUESTION 15
April 2022 Question Seven C
(c) i) Identify three challenges that businesses could face in adopting e-commerce.
(3 marks)
(ii) For each of the identified challenges in (c) (1) above, suggest a suitable solution that businesses could use to deal with it. (3 marks)
QUESTION 16
December 2021 Question One A
(a) (i) Distinguish between the “e-wallets” and “bank transfers” e-commerce payment methods. (4 marks)
(ii) In an era of identity theft and impersonation, security is among the primary concerns that restrains consumers from engaging in e-commerce.
With respect to the above statement, examine three critical functions that are performed by a secure electronic transaction (SET) system. (6 marks)
QUESTION 17
December 2021 Question Three A
(a) (i) Outline three models used in classifying e-commerce applications. (3 marks)
(ii) Explain two security challenges encountered in digital marketing of e-commerce.
(4 marks)
QUESTION 18
November 2017 Question Seven B
Explain the following terms as used in e-commerce:
(i) Digital marketing.
(ii) Digital goods.
QUESTION 19
May 2019 Question One A and B
(a) Describe five major activities involved in conducting Business-to-Consumer (B2C) e-commerce. (5 marks)
(b) Examine five roles of the government in the development of e-commerce in developing countries.
QUESTION 20
May 2019 Question Seven A
i) Highlight six reasons why online marketing is preferred over offline marketing.
ii) Outline two limitations of online marketing
QUESTION 21
November 2018 Question Seven A
Discuss three types of Business to Consumer (B2C) e-commerce business models.
QUESTION 22
May 2018 Question One
(a) Distinguish between the following types of e-commerce:
(i) “Social e-commerce” and “local e-commerce”.
(ii) “Mobile e-commerce” and “consumer-to-consumer e-commerce”.
(b) Citing four unique features of e-commerce, explain the significance of each feature to a business.
(c) Describe the term “e-distributor” as used in e-commerce.
(d) Distinguish between “digital cash” and “virtual currency” as used in digital payments.
TOPIC 9
MOBILE DEVICES AND APPLICATIONS
QUESTION 1
April 2025 Question One B
Outline FOUR input devices used in a smartphone. (4 marks)
QUESTION 2
December 2024 Question Five A
Explain THREE benefits that would accrue to a business as a result of using mobile applications. (3 marks)
QUESTION 3
April 2024 Question One A and D
(a) List TWO limitations of mobile computing. (2 marks)
(d) Quick Response (QR) codes have gained significant popularity in recent years, becoming a widely adopted technology for various purposes.
Outline FOUR reasons for the popularity of QR codes. (4 marks)
QUESTION 4
April 2024 Question Two A
The emergence of mobile communication applications has revolutionised how people communicate and interact with each other.
Explain FOUR essential features of a communication application. (8 marks)
QUESTION 5
April 2024 Question Seven A
(i) Identify FOUR security threats in mobile applications. (4 marks)
(ii) Propose an appropriate measure to mitigate each of the threats identified in (a) (i) above. (4 marks)
QUESTION 6
December 2023 Question Two A
Citing TWO examples, explain the term “mobile operating system”. (4 marks)
QUESTION 7
April 2023 Question Seven C
Complete the table below with appropriate name of the feature used in respective iOS and Android mobile operating systems:
Feature iOS Android
Developer
Default browser
QUESTION 8
December 2022 Question Four B
Giving an example, explain the purpose of a mobile browser. (3 marks)
QUESTION 9
August 2021 Question Six E
Outline two limitations of a touch screen as an input device. (2 marks)
QUESTION 10
April 2022 Question Six A
Discuss three benefits that are provided by mobile devices and applications for health care professionals. (6 marks)
TOPIC 10
SYSTEMS ANALYSIS AND DESIGN
QUESTION 1
April 2025 Question Two B
Discuss FOUR techniques used to measure the effectiveness of system maintenance.
(8 marks)
QUESTION 2
December 2024 Question One B
Describe FOUR activities that are carried out during information system implementation phase. (4 marks)
QUESTION 3
December 2024 Question Two D
Discuss FOUR steps carried out during system requirements elicitation process.(8 marks)
QUESTION 4
December 2024 Question Four C
Examine THREE benefits of prototyping in identification and clarification of user requirements. (6 marks)
QUESTION 5
December 2024 Question Seven C
Maureen Bett was required to outline system specifications to be used in a proposed information system.
Describe THREE typical contents of the specification document. (6 marks)
QUESTION 6
August 2024 Question One C
Outline FOUR functions of user documentation during the development of an information system. (4 marks)
QUESTION 7
August 2024 Question Five A, B and C
(a) State TWO factors that determine the choice of data collection method. (2 marks)
(b) List THREE deliverables produced during the systems analysis phase of an information system development. (3 marks)
(c) Examine THREE ways that prototyping helps to identify and clarify user requirements. (3 marks)
QUESTION 8
August 2024 Question Six D
List FOUR disadvantages of prototyping in systems analysis and design. (4 marks)
QUESTION 9
August 2024 Question Seven A
Discuss THREE activities involved during information system requirements elicitation process. (6 marks)
QUESTION 10
April 2024 Question Three B
Explain THREE circumstances that would necessitate the use of pilot approach during system change over. (6 marks)
QUESTION 11
April 2024 Question Four C
Explain THREE types of feasibility studies that are conducted during the development of an information system. (6 marks)
QUESTION 12
April 2024 Question Five A
Outline SIX core processes for software development. (6 marks)
QUESTION 13
April 2024 Question Six B
Implementation is an importance phase in the development of an information system.
Describe THREE activities carried out in this phase. (6 marks)
QUESTION 14
April 2024 Question Seven C
Describe FOUR events that might spark an iterative process in software development.
(4 marks)
QUESTION 15
December 2023 Question One B
Outline FOUR qualities of a good system documentation. (4 marks)
QUESTION 16
December 2023 Question Three A, C and E
(a) Differentiate between pilot implementation methodology and parallel information systems implementation methodologies. (2 marks)
(c) Outline FOUR roles of an Information Systems Analyst.
(4 marks)
(e) (i) Distinguish between systems analysis and systems design. (2 marks)
(ii) Citing TWO reasons, explain the purpose of the system development life cycle. (4 marks)
QUESTION 17
December 2023 Question Four D
Justify with THREE reasons why an organisation would install a tailor-made software.
(6 marks)
QUESTION 18
December 2023 Question Five B
With respect to questionnaires, distinguish between open ended questions and closed ended questions as used in data collection. (4 marks)
QUESTION 19
August 2023 Question Seven C
Outline SIX instances when you would recommend prototypes during system development. (6 marks)
QUESTION 20
April 2023 Question Two B
Explain THREE techniques for eliciting user requirements during information systems development. (6 marks)
QUESTION 21
April 2023 Question Three A
Explain the rationale behind applying the systems development life cycle (SDLC) during the development of information systems. (2 marks)
QUESTION 22
April 2023 Question Five D
Tujenge Ltd. is in the process of developing a new information system. A few managers are reluctant to embrace the new information system.
Required:
(i) Identify the most suitable method of system changeover to apply in the above scenario. (1 mark)
(ii) Outline FOUR advantages associated with the method identified in (d) (i) above.
(4 marks)
QUESTION 23
December 2022 Question Two A
Outline the output products that result from the following systems development lifecycle stages:
(i) System initiation. (2 marks)
(ii) Requirement analysis. (2 marks)
(iii) Systems design. (2 marks)
(iv) System integration. (2 marks)
(v) Systems testing. (2 marks)
QUESTION 24
December 2022 Question B and D
Highlight FOUR types of skills that a system analyst is required to have in order to effectively carry out his/her tasks. (4 marks)
Kibao Masetu, a system analyst, used the prototyping method to develop an information system for Petoka Ltd. Explain FOUR advantages of using this method. (8 marks)
QUESTION 25
December 2022 Question Six C
Outline FOUR benefits of conducting a feasibility study during systems development.
(4 marks)
QUESTION 26
August 2022 Question One B
Outline four characteristics of an open system. (4 marks)
QUESTION 27
August 2022 Question Three A
Formulate four questions that would enable you to conduct stakeholder analysis in system development. (4 marks)
QUESTION 28
August 2022 Question Four A and E
(a) Citing three reasons, explain the importance of requirements gathering in system development. (3 marks)
(e) Outline four factors that could be used when selecting the best software development methodology for a specific project. (4 marks)
QUESTION 29
August 2022 Question Five A
Explain six reasons that would cause an information system project to fail during the implementation stage. (6 marks)
QUESTION 30
August 2022 Question Seven C and D
(c) One technique for gathering requirements during system development is the use of workshops.
Discuss two advantages and two disadvantages of using workshops for requirements gathering. (4 marks)
(d) (i) To minimise resistance during system changeover, it is always necessary to involve users.
Identify four different ways of involving users in the system development process.
(4 marks)
(ii) Explain four approaches used in system changeover. (4 marks)
(iii) Explain the significance of an information centre in an organisation. (2 marks)
QUESTION 31
April 2022 Question Two B and C
(b) Outline four possible causes of ICT project failure during system implementation.
(4 marks)
(c) (i) Explain the term “requirement elicitation” in relation to software development.
(2 marks)
(ii) Explain two “requirements Elicitation” techniques. (4 marks)
QUESTION 32
April 2022 Question Five D
Examine the significance of carrying out stakeholder analysis before undertaking an information systems project. (6 marks)
QUESTION 33
April 2022 Question Seven D
Summarise two common challenges encountered while using the system development life cycle (SDLC) model. (2 marks)
QUESTION 34
December 2021 Question Three C
(c) Define each of the following terms as used in systems theory.
(i) Functional decomposition. (2 marks)
(ii) Functional cohesion. (2 marks)
(iii) Feed-forward. (2 marks)
QUESTION 35
December 2021 Question Four D
Outline four advantages of using joint application design (JAD) technique in the design of an information system. (4 marks)
QUESTION 36
December 2021 Question Five B and C
(b) (i) Define the term “system” in the context of information systems. (1 mark)
(ii) Distinguish between “physical systems” and “abstract systems”. (2 marks)
(c) (i) Describe the job of a Systems Analyst. (1 mark)
(ii) Outline five tasks performed by a Systems Analyst. (5 marks)
QUESTION 37
December 2021 Question Six B
Outline eight activities carried out during systems analysis. (8 marks)
QUESTION 38
November 2019 Question One A
You are the information systems manager for a new accounting software system that will provide monthly income statements to twenty local computer dealers.
Required:
(i) Explain three roles of a systems architect during the implementation of the above system.
(ii) Identify three types of processing controls in the accounting software system
(iii) Explain three ways the system could be used for gaining business competitive advantage.
(iv) Evaluate three challenges that are likely to be encountered during the implementation process.
QUESTION 39
November 2019 Question Three C
Describe four barriers against implementation of management information systems in organisations.
QUESTION 40
November 2019 Question Five B
Highlight two activities carried out at each of the following system development stages:
(i) System analysis.
(ii) System design.
(iii) System implementation
QUESTION 41
May 2019 Question One D
Identify six factors that might enhance successful system development.
QUESTION 42
May 2019 Question Three A
Explain two applications of object oriented programming languages in information systems development.
QUESTION 43
May 2019 Question Six A (iii) and B
a) ii) In the context of computing, differentiate the following terms:
“Closed system” and “open system”.
b) Describe four types of feasibility studies that could be conducted during systems development life cycle (SDLC).
QUESTION 44
November 2018 Question One B
Explain each of the following information system maintenance techniques:
(i) Patching.
(ii) Configuration management.
QUESTION 45
November 2018 Question Two B
Explain four reasons why models are used in software systems development.
QUESTION 46
November 2018 Question Three D
Distinguish between “supply chain planning systems” and “supply chain execution systems”.
QUESTION 47
November 2018 Question Four D
Examine four reasons why system maintenance phase is necessary in system development life cycle (SDLC).
QUESTION 48
November 2018 Question Six B
Describe four suitable circumstances under which Rapid Application Development (RAD) approach might be used during system development.
QUESTION 49
May 2018 Question Two B
Describe three problems of the systems development lifecycle (SDLC) model of developing information systems.
TOPIC 11
LEGAL, ETHICAL AND SOCIAL ISSUES IN INFORMATION SYSTEMS
QUESTION 1
April 2025 Question One C
Ping Ltd., a social media company in Kenya collects user data to improve targeted advertisements. However, it sells the data to third parties without informing the users.
With reference to the above scenario, examine FIVE ethical principles violated by Ping Ltd. in its handling of user data. (10 marks)
QUESTION 2
December 2024 Question Two C
Highlight FOUR measures that could be used to minimise unethical Information Communication Technology (ICT) practices in an organisation. (4 marks)
QUESTION 3
August 2024 Question One E
Information Communication Technology (ICT) has heightened ethical issues and exerted pressure on existing social arrangements.
Discuss THREE technological trends that are responsible for the above issues. (6 marks)
QUESTION 4
August 2024 Question Four D
Highlight SIX measures that could be used to minimise unethical ICT practices in an orgnisation. (6 marks)
QUESTION 5
August 2024 Question Seven D
The introduction of new information technology raises new ethical, social, and political issues that must be dealt with on an individual, social, and political levels.
Discuss THREE moral dimensions raised by these issues. (6 marks)
QUESTION 6
April 2024 Question Three A
An increase in online data processing has led to increased rate of computer crimes.
Describe THREE control measures that could be put in place to reduce computer crime rate in organisations. (6 marks)
QUESTION 7
April 2024 Question Seven B
Social concerns in information systems are a crucial aspect of the development and implementation of information systems. These concerns are related to ethical, social, political and moral issues that arise from the use of information systems.
Examine FOUR social issues in Information Systems. (8 marks)
QUESTION 8
December 2023 Question Three D
Explain TWO technical trends that generate ethical concerns. (4 marks)
QUESTION 9
December 2023 Question Four C
Explain THREE ethical issues related to e-commerce for a business organisation.
(6 marks)
QUESTION 10
August 2023 Question Two D
Explain the impact of THREE technological trends that pose ethical challenges to organisations. (6 marks)
QUESTION 11
August 2023 Question Three A
Highlight TWO ethical issues that need to be considered by an information systems development team. (2 marks)
QUESTION 12
April 2023 Question One D
Highlight THREE ethical and THREE societal issues to the development and use of information technology. (6 marks)
QUESTION 13
April 2023 Question Three B
Outline FOUR methods for controlling unethical behaviour in ICT. (4 marks)
QUESTION 14
April 2023 Question Seven D
Explain SEVEN ethical issues associated with increased dependency on information systems. (7 marks)
QUESTION 15
December 2022 Question Five C
Assess FOUR methods of controlling unethical behaviour in ICT. (4 marks)
QUESTION 16
December 2022 Question Seven B
Highlight TWO legal issues and two ethical issues that may arise by use of information systems in a large-scale chain-based supermarket. (4 marks)
QUESTION 17
August 2022 Question One A
Suggest the ethical issues resulting from each of the following technological trends:
(i) Doubling of computing power every eighteen (18) months. (2 marks)
(ii) Rapidly declining data storage costs. (2 marks)
(iii) Advances in networking and the internet. (2 marks)
QUESTION 18
August Question Four B
Justify why an information system is considered as an intellectual property. (4 marks)
QUESTION 19
August 2022 Question Five C
Describe each of the following ethical issues in regard to computer technology:
(i) Trade marks. (2 marks)
(ii) Patent rights. (2 marks)
QUESTION 20
April 2022 Question One C
(c) (i) Outline two advantages of a professional code of ethics. (2 marks)
(ii) Highlight two drawbacks of a professional code of ethics. (2 marks)
QUESTION 21
November 2019 Question Two B
Describe five ethical principles of information management.
QUESTION 22
November 2019 Question Six C
Explain three challenges of implementing copyrights for digital products on the internet.
QUESTION 23
November 2019 Question Seven D
i) Explain the term “socio-technical systems” as used in management information systems.
ii) Describe three characteristics of socio-technical systems.
QUESTION 24
May 2019 Question Four B
i) Highlight four characteristics of an information society.
ii) Explain two challenges faced when implementing information society
QUESTION 25
November 2018 Question One D
Copyright laws grant management information systems developers the exclusive privilege to produce and distribute their creative works.
Highlight six challenges that are posed to these laws by information communication technology (ICT).
QUESTION 26
November 2018 Question Two A
New Generation Ltd. a telecommunication company, allows its customers to pay their bills online. James Okelo, one of their customers, discovered that he could gain access to a directory on the New Generation Ltd.’s server that contains personal details of a large number of customers.
James Okelo contacted New Generation Ltd. and suggested that they should address this problem and send letters to all New Generation Ltd.’s customers informing them that their credit card details might have been accessed via the website. New Generation Ltd. refused to send out the letters to the customers. James Okelo then contacted a national newspaper to make his discovery public.
Required:
Evaluate five legal, ethical and professional issues that might arise from the situation described above.
QUESTION 27
May 2018 Question Seven E
Suggest six measures that employers could put in place to deal with internet abuse at the workplace.